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The slaughter took place in Southern Israel, not in Gaza.

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“There have not been any Jews in Gaza for nearly two decades.”

Am I missing something? If that’s the case, how did so many Jews get slaughtered on 10/7?

Im not trying to be provocative, I am truly confused by that statement.

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To illustration how "valued" women are in Palestinian society, a number of woman arrested in Israel for terrorism are arrested because they want to be -- they'd prefer to be in prison in Israel, than "living" in Palestinian society as baby factories with a husband who beats them and in-laws who treat them little better than a slave.

(I'll look for sources on this and share, but it's not at the top of my priority list right now.)

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